Why did people ume in the 1980's that AIDs was a disease?

I can only infer that possibly we thought it was because uals received it more since STDs weren't as widely known and people weren't as educated about them, thus the main reason for condoms was for birth control. And since it's not possible for two men or women to conceive, condoms were thought irrelevant. But if so, I don't understand why it still seems to be an issue, and if I umed right and people now are still just as ignorant, then the bigotry and prejudice of government officials and their constituents are primely at fault for the surge of AID's, because they felt it was sent from God and not just a faulty statistical inference, thus ignoring this vital human concern. Am I right in any of this?